Centre, State & Local Government – Indian Polity – WBCS Main Question Paper

Centre, State & Local Government Indian Polity WBCS Main Question Paper
parliament question for psc exam

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2019

1. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States is
(A) the President of India
(B) the Vice-President of India
(C) the Speaker of the House of the People
(D) None of the above
 
2. In the context of qualifications for contesting Presidential elections in India, which of the following statements is incorrect?
(A) He should be a citizen of India.
(B) He should not hold office of profit.
(C) He should be qualified to be elected to the House of the People.
(D) He should be aged 30
 
26. A resolution ratifying a Proclamation of Emergency requires to be passed
(A) by either House of Parliament.
(B) by Lok Sabha.
(C) by both Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting.
(D) by each House of Parliament in separate sittings With majority of total membership of each House and by majority of net less than 2/3rd of members present and voting.
 
27. The Parliament has the power to legislate on the subjects of all three Lists in respect of
(A) Backward areas
(B) Hill areas
(C) Scheduled areas
(D) Union Territories
 
29. Judicial review of proclamation under Article 356 would lie on any one of the following grounds:
(A) The proclamation has been made upon the consideration which is extraneous or irrelevant.
(B) Exercise of the power under Article 356 is malafide.
(C) A statutory order which lacks bona fide characteristics.
(D) All of the above
 
30. Which one of the following is no longer considered an adequate ground for the Issue of Proclamation of Emergency?
(A) Armed rebellion
(B) External aggression
(C) Internal disturbance
(D) War
 
31. A change In distribution of powers between the Centre and the States can be done by
(A) the Union Government
(B) the States by themselves
(C) amending the Constitution
(D) None of the above
 
32. The Constitution reserves the residuary powers in the
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Union
(D) States
 
33. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between a Central Law and a State Law is found in
(A) Article 156
(B) Article 254
(C) Article 300
(D) Entry 42, List III
 
34. The Union Government can assign any function to the States
(A) on the recommendation of the Parliament.
(B) on the directive of the President.
(C) on its own discretion.
(D) with the consent of the concerned State Government.
35. Both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate on
(A) criminal law and procedure
(B) economic and social planning
(C) marriage, contracts and torts
(D) All of the above
 
36. Which of the following is not true?
(A) Parliament has exclusive power to make law on any matter in the Union List.
(B) Parliament and State Legislatures have power to make law on any matter in the Concurrent List.
(C) In certain exceptional circumstances, State Legislatures can make law on the subject given in the Union List.
(D) Parliament can make laws on subjects in the State List in certain circumstances.
 
37. A legislation enacted by a State Legislature falls in the category of legislation.
(A) autonomous
(B) delegated
(C) subordinate
(D) supreme
 
76. The Executive Power of the State is vested with
(A) People of the State
(B) Chief Minister of the State
(C) Governor of the State
(D) State Legislature
 
77. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected?
(A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Leader of the majority party in the Parliament
(C) Senior-most amongst the Governors of States
(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 
78. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) constituent power
(B) executive power
(C) judicial power
(D) legislative power
 
79. Any charge for impeachment of the President may be preferred
(A) only in the Council of States
(B) only in the House of the People
(C) in either House of the Parliament
(D) only in joint session of the Parliament
 
80. The Governor can be removed from the office
(A) by the President at his pleasure.
(B) by impeachment in Parliament.
(C) on the advice of the Chief Minister.
(D) on a resolution passed by two-third majority in the State Legislative Assembly.
 
82. Who among the following is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India?
(A) The President of India
(B) The Governor of a State
(C) The Prime Minister of India
(D) All of the above
 
83. Rajya Sabha has a term of
(A) five years
(B) six years
(C) ten years
(D) it is a permanent body in which one-third of the members retire after every second year
84. The Parliament of India consists of
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(C) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the Prime Minister
 
85. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) fourteen days
(B) one month
(C) three months
(D) six months
 
86. Articles 155 and 156 of the Constitution deal with
(A) Election Commission
(B) Inter-State Commerce Commission
(C) Legislative Councils
(D) President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor
 
87. The Council of Ministers at the Union remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister
 
88. The President nominates Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 7
 
89. The quorum requirement in the Rajya Sabha is
(A) 25
(B) 50
(C) 100
(D) 126
 
90. Which of these Houses is presided over by a non-Member?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Vidhan Sabha
(D) All of the above
 
91. A person can be a member of the Council of Ministers without being a Member of Parliament for the maximum period of
(A) one month
(B) three months
(C) six months
(D) one year
 
92. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
(A) the State Legislative Assembly
(B) the Governor
(C) the President
(D) None of the above
 
93. Decisions regarding disqualification of members of Lok Sabha are taken by the
(A) Parliamentary Secretary
(B) Minister for Parliamentary Affairs
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker
94. On receipt of a Constitution Amendment Bill having been passed by both Houses of the Parliament, the President
(A) may give his assent.
(B) may withhold his assent.
(C) may return the Bill for reconsideration.
(D) shall give his assent.
 
97. Who has the power to dissolve the House of the People?
(A) Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Council of Ministers
 
98. What can be the maximum interval between two sessions of each House of the Parliament?
(A) Three months
(B) Six months
(C) Nine months
(D) One year
 
99. Which provision of the Constitution gives the Governor of a State power to grant pardon in certain cases?
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 155
(C) Article 161
(D) Article 165
 
100. Which provision of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
(A) Article 258
(B) Article 260
(C) Article 262
(D) Article 264
 
101. A Constitutional Amendment shall also be ratified by Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States by resolution if it is meant to make any change
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principles
(C) Fundamental Duties
(D) Special Provisions
 
106. Which of the following Amendments added anti-defection provisions in the Constitution?
(A) 41st Amendment
(B) 52nd Amendment     (1985)
(C) 43rd Amendment
(D) 44th Amendment
 
111. The tenure of Gram Panchayat and Nagarpalika shall be for
(A) 3 years
(B) 4 years
(C) 5 years, unless dissolved earlier
(D) co-extensive with the term of legislative assembly
 
112. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
(A) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
(B) by indirect method
(C) by Legislature of the States
(D) None of the above
 
113. A Union Territory is administered by
(A) the Governor of the territory.
(B) the President of India directly.
(C) the President of India through an administrator appointed by him called the Lieutenant Governor.
(D) the Chief Minister of the territory and his Council of Ministers.
 
116. The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution deals with
(A) defections
(B) the Election Commission
(C) the Finance Commission
(D) Other Backward Classes
 
117. Which Article provides for procedure in Parliament with respect to Estimates?
(A) Article 110
(B) Article 111
(C) Article 113
(D) Article 114
 
118. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament?
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
 
 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2018

53. The largest committee of Parliament of India is
a) Public Accounts Committee
b) Estimates Committee
c) Committee on Public Undertaking
d) Joint Parliamentary Committee
 
77. Who among the following holds his/her office at the pleasure of the President?
a) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
c) Attorney General of India
d) Chairman of the UPSC
 
79. The Parliament of India consists of
a) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
c) Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
d) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and the President
 
80. Total strength of the Council of States consists of
a) 260 members
b) 238 members representing States and Union Territories and 12 nominated by the President
c) 305 members
d) 300 members representing States and Union Territories
 
81. Elections to the Vidhan Parishad are held by
a) Direct elections
b) Indirect elections
c) the system of proportional representation
d) the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote
 
82. The power of allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States and the constituencies is vested with
a) Election Commission
b) Parliament
c) State Legislatures
d) President
 
83. Rajya Sabha can without withhold Money Bills for a period of
a) 14 days
b) 3 months
c) 6 months
d) None of the above
 
84. Who among the following has a right to speak or otherwise participate in the proceedings of either House or in any joint sitting of the parliament without voting right?
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Chief Election Commissioner
c) Attorney General of India
d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
 
85. Prorogation of a House means
a) a House has been brought in session
b) the session of the House has been terminated
c) the House itself stands terminated
d) None of the above
 
86. In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister
a) the Cabinet may choose another leader
b) fresh general election must take place
c) the ministry is dissolved
d) President’s decision
88. The Legislative Council in a State can be abolished by the Parliament on the recommendation of
a) President
b) Governor
c) State Legislative Assembly
d) None of the above
 
89. The maximum number of nominated members in both Houses of Parliament can be
a) 10    
b) 12
c) 14    
d) 20
 
90. On receipt of a Constitutional Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament, the President
a) may return the Bill for reconsideration
b) shall give his assent
c) may give his assent
d) may without his assent
 
97. How many members in the House of the People are chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States?
a) 520     
b) 530
c) 540    
d) 550
 
140. The President of India nominates
a) Chief Election Commissioner
b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
c) Chief Justice of India
d) All of the above
 
141. The ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States
a) the President of India
b) the speaker of Lok Sabha
c) the Vice-President
d) None of the above
 
51. Xth schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
a) the Finance Commission
b) the Election Commission
c) Other Backward Classes
d) defections
 
72. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving question of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
a) Article 156
b) Article 254
c) Article 300
d) Entry 42, List III
 
95. Which Article of the Constitution provides for the adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers?
a) Article 258
b) Article 260
c) Article 262
d) Article 264
 
73. The Central Government can issue direction to the States with regard to
I. Union list
II. State List
III. Concurrent List
a) I
b) II and III
c) I and III
d) I, II and III
87. Which of the following emergencies has been declared the maximum number of times?
a) National Emergency
b) President Rule in a State
c) Financial Emergency
d) All three, equal number of times
 
98. Then the offices of both the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are vacant, who will appoint the person to perform the functions of the Speaker?
a) The President
b) The Chief Justice of India
c) The Prime Minister
d) The Council of Ministers
 
99. After what time period may a House declare the seat of any member vacant, when he absents from all meetings without permission of the house?
a) 30 days
b) 45 days
c) 60 days
d) There is no time period
 
143. Power of the Governor to grant pardon, etc., and to suspend, remit or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
a) Article 159
b) Article 161
c) Article 162
d) Article 163
 
144. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice-President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till the new President is elected?
a) Chief Justice of India
b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
c) Seniormost Governor
d) Leader of the majority party
 
145. In the performance of his duties in exercise of his powers, the Governor
a) is answerable to the Vidhan Sabha
b) is answerable in the court of law
c) is not answerable to the court of law
d) can be impeached by the Vidhan Sabha
 
146. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
a) six months
b) nine months
c) one year
d) two years
 
147. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
a) Constituent power
b) Legislative power
c) Executive power
d) Quasi-judicial power
 
148. The President of India has power to
a) summon each House of Parliament
b) dissolve the Houses or either House of Parliament
c) prorogue the Houses or either House of Parliament
d) Dissolve the Lok Sabha only
 
149. Any charge of impeachment of the President may be preferred
a) only in the Council of States
b) only in the House of the People
c) only in joint session of Parliament
d) by either House of Parliament
 
150. The disputes regarding the election of President and Vice-President of India are filed and settled
a) in the Supreme Court
b) in the Parliament
c) both in the Supreme Court as well as High Courts
d) in the Election Commission
 
 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2017

1. Parliament can legislate matters in the State List :
(A) When a party enjoys ⅔rd majority in the House.
(B) By the consent of the legislature of the State concerned.
(C) When Rajya Sabha passes a Resolution by ⅔rd majority.
(D) With the consent of the President and Chief Justice of India.
 
2. A ‘No-confidence Motion’ in the Lok Sabha can be introduced by the support of at least
(A) 10% of the Lok Sabha members.
(B) 50% of the Lok Sabha members.
(C) By all the opposition members.
(D) By any single member of the Lok Sabha.
 
12. Seats to Lok Sabha are not reserved for
(A) Schedule Castes
(B) Schedule Tribes 
(C) Schedule Tribes in Autonomous Districts of Assam
(D) Anglo-Indian
 
8. Xth Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) the Finance Commission     
(B) the Election Commission      
(C) defections     
(D) Other Backward Classes
 
9. Who nominates the Chairman of Public Accounts Committee of Indian Parliament ?
(A) Prime Minister     
(B) President     
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha      
(D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
 
16. Election to the Gram Panchayats are
(A) by indirect method
(B) by legislatures of the State
(C) to be direct on the basis of adult franchise
(D) by Council of Ministers
 
20. The State List contains
(Initially 66 items)
(A) 96 subjects      
(B) 106 subjects       
(C) 61 subjects      
(D) 79 subjects
 
22. The Constitutional provision relevant for solving questions of repugnancy between Central Law and the State Law is found in
(A) Article 254    
(B)  Article 300     
(C) Entry 42, List III    
(D) Article 156
 
30. Amendment of the Constitution of India are made by exercise of
(A) Constitutional power of the Parliament
(B) Inherent power of the Parliament
(C) Legislative power of the Parliament
(D) Constituent power of the Parliament
 
31. Taxes not to be imposed save by authority of law appears in
(A) Article 246      
(B) Article 265      
(C) Article 266     
(D) Article 268
32. How many amendments of the constitution have been made till date ?
(A) 99      
(B) 100       
(C) 101      
(D) 102
 
33. Power to grant pardons are enjoyed by which of the following constitutional authorities
(A) President
(B) President and Governor of a state
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Justice of Supreme Court of India
 
36. Which of the following pair of articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India ?
(A) Article 60 & Article 61
(B) Article 62 & Article 63
(C) Article 99 & Article 100
(D) Article 72 & Article 73
 
45. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Governor to promulgate Ordinances during recess of Legislature ?
(A) Article 206     
(B) Article 208       
(C) Article 213    
(D) Article 212
 
46. The Constitution Amendment Bills are initiated in
(A) Lok Sabha      
(B) Rajya Sabha       
(C) Either House     
(D) Rajya Sabha with prior approval from Lok Sabha
 
48. The Certificate to a Money Bill is signed by
(A) The Prime Minister of India
(B) The Leader of Opposition of the House of the People
(C) The Finance Minister of India
(D) The Speaker of the House of the People
 
49. The Freedom of Speech of a Member of Parliament during the sojourn of Session is
(A) almost absolute
(B) subject to restriction of Fundamental Right
(C) is regulated by the Parliament itself
(D) is similar to that of an advocate acting on behalf of his client
 
64. In the Election of the President, each Member of the Electoral College has
(A) one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates
(B) one vote as many votes there are candidates
(C) one vote with particular value attached to it
(D) one vote
 
65. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Executive power      
(B) Legislative power     
(C) Constituent power    
(D) Quasi-judicial power
 
66. The term of the office of Vice President is
(A) five years from the date on which he takes oath of the office.
(B) five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
(C) five years from the date of his election is announced.
(D) five years later from the date on which he enters upon his office.
67. Give correct response to :
(A) The President of India can seek re-election as many times under the Letter of Constitution, but there is well established convention that he should not seek re-election for more than two terms.
(B) The President of India is ineligible for re-election.
(C) The President of India cannot be re-elected for more than three times.
(D) The President of India is eligible for re-election as many times he desires.
 
68. Which of the following statement(s) is / are not true regarding ‘Inter State Council‘ ?
(A) It is required to meet at least thrice every year.
(B) It is established under Article 265 of the Constitution of India.
(C) Decision of the Chairman is bound by the Consensus.
(D) Decision on all questions are required to be taken in Consensus.
 
71. Which among the following states has only one House i.e. Legislative Assembly :
(A) Assam      
(B) West Bengal      
(C) Arunachal Pradesh    
(D) Bihar
 
72. The provision of Article 368 of the Constitution of India as it stands today deals with
(A) power as well as procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
(B) authority of Parliament to amend the Constitution of India.
(C) procedure for Amendment of the Constitution to be followed by the Parliament.
(D) passing and Ratification of Amendment Bills by State Legislature.
 
76. List I (Union List) in Seventh schedule contain how many items ?
(A) 76      
(B) 87      
(C) 97       
(D) 99
 
77. Minimum how many days’ notice is required to move the resolution to remove the deputy Chairman of the Council of States ?
(A) 10 days      
(B) 14 days     
(C) 20 days    
(D) 30 days
 
79. The President nominates ____ Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
(A) 5      
(B) 1       
(C) 2      
(D) 7
 
80. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of
(A) President      
(B) Prime Minister      
(C) Parliament      
(D) Chief Minister
 
81. The Constitution of India provides special procedure for
(A) Financial Bills       
(B) Money Bills      
(C) Both Money and Financial Bills       
(D) None of the above
 
82. Rajya Sabha can withhold Money Bills for a period of
(A) 14 days      
(B) 3 months      
(C) 6 months     
(D) None of the above
83. Money Bill can be
(A) Invalid by Rajya Sabha
(B) Invalid by both the Houses
(C) Rajya Sabha can reject the bill
(D) None of the above
 
84. The Rajya Sabha has 12 nominated members. They are nominated by the President from amongst the persons having special knowledge or practical experience in
(A) Literature, science, art and social services
(B) Literature, art and law
(C) Literature, science and philosophy
(D) Literature, science and art
 
85. Council of States can be suspended during session
(A) By Prime Minister of India
(B) By Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) By Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) None of the above
 
86. Which one of the following authorities is competent to seek the advisory opinion of the Supreme Court of India
(A) The President of India
(B) The Parliament of India
(C) The Governor of a State
(D) The Prime Minister of India
 
87. The Ordinance issued by the Governor are subject to the approval by
(A) President      
(B) Chief Minister       
(C) State Legislature     
(D) None of the above
 
88. If the Governor wishes to relinquish the office before the expiry of his term, he may address his resignation to
(A) Chief Minister of the State
(B) Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly
(C) Prime Minister
(D) President
 
89. The power to grant pardons, reprieves or remissions of punishment under Article 72 in exercised by the President of India
(A) on the advice of the Prime Minister
(B) on his own as Head of the Union
(C) on the advice of Council of Ministers
(D) in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet
 
90. The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a
(A) Executive Power      
(B) Legislative Power     
(C) Constituent Power     
(D) Quasi-Judicial Power
 
91. The President’s Rule under Article 356 remains valid in the State for the maximum period
(A) One year      
(B) Two years       
(C) Six months      
(D) Nine months
 
92. In the event of the occurrence of vacancies in the offices of both, the President and Vice President of India, who among the following shall discharge the functions of the President till new President is elected
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Leader of the majority party
(C) Chief Justice of India
(D) Senior most Governor
 
93. Who among the following holds his / her office at the pleasure of the President ?
(A) Chairman of UPSC
(B) Attorney General of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
 
94. Power of Governor to grant pardon etc. and to suspend, rent or commute sentence in certain cases is a statutory power. It is given in
(A) Article 159       
(B) Article 161      
(C) Article 162     
(D) Article 163
 
95. All matters relating to the election of the Vice President including any election petition shall be enquired into by
(A) Election Tribunal specifically constituted the purpose
(B) Supreme Court
(C) A Committee constituted for the purpose by Rajya Sabha
(D) Any High Court where the petition is moved
 
96. Which Article of the Constitution of India prescribes power to The President to issue Ordinance ?
(A) Article 123      
(B) Article 72     
(C) Article 125     
(D) Article 254
 
 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2016

5. Who said that the emergency powers of the President is a fraud on the Constitution ?
(A) K.M. Nambiar        
(B) K.M. Munshi       
(C) Dr. B.N. Rao       
(D) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
 
17. A member of Parliament or a State Legislature can be elected as the President, but –
(Article 59(1))
(A) he has to resign his seat before contesting election.
(B) he has to relinquish his seat as soon as he enters upon his office as President
(C) he has to relinquish his seat within six months of his election.
(D) a member of Parliament can contest but a member of State Legislature cannot contest.
 
18. In the election of the President
(A) the members of the State Legislative Assemblies enjoy more votes.
(B) the members of Parliament enjoy more votes.
(C) the members of State Legislative Assemblies and two houses of Parliament enjoy equal number of votes.
(D) None of the above
 
19. During the recess of the Parliament the President can promulgate ordinances
(A) with the prior approval of the Parliament.
(B) with the prior approval of the Supreme Court of India.
(C) with the consent of the Council of Ministers.
(D) on his own.
 
27. Under the Constitution it is
(A) obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers but is not obliged to follow it.
(B) it is obligatory for the President to accept the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(C) it is not obligatory for the President to seek or accent the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(D) it is obligatory for the President to seek the advice of the Council of Ministers if his own party is in power.
 
28. The President can declare emergency on ground of the breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the states –
(A) only on the receipt of report from the Governor of the state to this effect.
(B) even without a receipt of a report from the Governor if he is satisfied that situation has arisen in which the govt. of the state cannot be carried on in accordance with the Constitution.
(C) if the Council of Ministers of the States recommends to the President.
(D) if the Speaker of the State Legislative Assembly recommends to the President.
 
29. A proclamation of emergency must be placed before the Parliament for its approval-
(A) within one month      
(B) within two months        
(C) within six months       
(D) within one year
 
30. With the approval of the Parliament the National Emergency can be continued for
(A) a maximum period of three years.
(B) a maximum period of one year.
(C) an indefinite period.
(D) a maximum period of six months.
 
31. Which one of the following changes is not effected during the national emergency ?
(A) The Fundamental Rights of the citizens can be suspended.
(B) The distribution of revenue between the Union and the States can be modified.
(C) The President can issue directions to the state with regard to exercise of their powers.
(D) The President can in his discretion the advice of the Council of Ministers.
 
51. Constitutionally the members of the Council of Ministers hold office-
(A) during the pleasure of the President.
(B) during the pleasure of the Speaker.
(C) during the pleasure of the Parliament.
(D) during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.
52. In Indian states the tribal population is largest in-
(A) Assam and Tripura
(B) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Chattisgarh
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand
 
53. The maximum duration for which the Vice-President may officiate as President is-
(A) 1 year       
(B) 3 months        
(C) 1 months        
(D) 6 months
 
56. The Article 243F deals with-
(A) disqualification from being a member of panchayat under any law.
(B) every panchayat is continued for a period of 5 years.
(C) the panchayat can impose taxes and raise funds.
(D) some seats are reserved for SCs and STs in the states.
 
57. ‘Contempt of Court’ places restriction on which Fundamental Right ?
(A) Right to Freedom       
(B) Right against Exploitation       
(C) Right to Equality      
(D) Right to Religion
 
58. When is the annual meeting of Gram Sabha being held ?
(A.) December         
(B) June        
(C) October        
(D) August
 
59. In which year the metropolitan Council of Delhi was replaced by a 70 member legislative assembly ?
(69th Amendment Act.)
(A) 1990        
(B) 1992        
(C) 1993        
(D) 1994
 
60. Which of the following article was omitted from the Indian constitution by the 80th Amendment bill ?
(A) Article 268        
(B) Article 269        
(C) Article 270        
(D) Article 272
 
63. The administrative relation between the center and the state are outlined in
(A) Articles 256-263        
(B) Articles 245-255      
(C) Articles 264-300       
(D) Articles 250-260
 
68. “A rule of legislative procedure under which further debate on a motion can be stopped” is known in parliamentary terminology as-
(A) Session        
(B) Closure      
(C) Resolution       
(D) De jure
70. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha (552) was fixed according to-
(A) 1981 Census       
(B) 1961 Census      
(C) 1951 Census       
(D) 1971 Census
 
71. Which of the following acts later led to creation of Zonal Councils ?
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) Indian Independence Act, 1947
(C) People’s Representation Act, 1950
(D) States Reorganization Act, 1956
 
76. The formation of the Council of Ministers starts with –
(A) the ordering of the general election of Parliament.
(B) the appointment of the Prime Minister.
(C) the appointment of the President.
(D) the formal notification of the President.
 
77. The time allowed to the members of a house to ask question to the minister concerned, is called-
(A) The Question Hour      
(B) Zero Hour       
(C) Adjournment Motion       
(D) Call Attention Motion
 
81. “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the house of people”, which Article states this ?
(A) 75(2)        
(B) 75(1)         
(C) 75(4)        
(D) 75(3)
 
82. The 59th Constitutional Amendment act was intended to-
(A) Curb political defection
(B) Impose emergency in Punjab
(C) Prevent the practice of Sati
(D) Prevent communal disturbance
 
83. What is the minimum strength of a State Legislative Assembly ?
(A) 40        
(B) 60        
(C) 50       
(D) 70
 
87. Which one of the following articles deals with the appointment, duty and tenure of the Advocate General of State ?
(A) Article 155        
(B) Article 165       
(C) Article 175      
(D) Article 185
 
88. Which among the following is a correct combination of members in Joint Committee on Office of Profit ?
(A) 15 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(B) 10 from Lok Sabha and 5 from Rajya Sabha
(C) 20 from Lok Sabha and 10 from Rajya Sabha
(D) 15 from Lok Sabha and 7 from Rajya Sabha
 
91. What is Zero Hour ?
(A) When the proposals of the opposition are considered.
(B) When matters of utmost importance are raised.
(C) Interval between morning and afternoon sessions
(D) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha.
 
95. The Constitution was amended for the first time in-
(A) 1961      
(B) 1971        
(C) 1951      
(D) 1981
98. Who summons the meeting of the Gram Panchayat Sabha ?
(A) B.D.O        
(B) S.D.O        
(C) Gram Pradhan        
(D) Zilla Parishad
 
99. Which among the following article is specifically excluded from the purview of the procedure of amendment as prescribed in Article 368 ?
(A) Article 54       
(B) Article 55       
(C) Article 214       
(D) Article 169
 
106. In which year was the first Panchayat election held ?
(A) 1978       
(B) 1980       
(C) 1982       
(D) 1981
 
107. Which one of the following steps cannot be taken by the President during the Financial Emergency ?
(A) He can direct the Union and State Governments to observe such canons of financial propriety as he deems desirable.
(B) He can suspend the Fundamental Rights of the Indian Citizens.
(C) He can order the reduction of salaries and allowances of all civil servants.
(D) He can order the reduction of the salaries of the Supreme Court and High Court judges.
 
103. Which one of the following powers of the Prime Minister in relation to the Council of Ministers has been wrongly listed ?
(A) The members of the Council of Ministers are appointed by the President on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(B) He allocates portfolios among the members of the Council of Ministers
(C) He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers
(D) He can dismiss the Council of Ministers if he finds that the members are not cooperating with him
 
114. In the Council of States in India, all the States are not equally represented because
(A) the states that joined the Indian Union did not demand equal representation
(B) no independent states existed in India voluntarily seeking Union as in the USA.
(C) in the Constituent Assembly the spokesmen of States’ rights did not demand equal representation.
(D) the dominant Congress party in the Constituent Assembly wanted unitary government.
 
115. Which among the following statements is not correct ?
(A) All money bills can originate in Lok Sabha only
(B) Resolution of removal of Vice President can originate in Rajya Sabha only.
(C) Resolution to create new all India services can be initiated in Lok Sabha only.
(D) No confidence motion against Council of Ministers is exclusive power of Lok Sabha.
 
120. The Governor of a state can
(A) nominate one third members of Legislative Assembly
(B) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Assembly
(C) nominate one third members of Legislative Council
(D) nominate one sixth members of Legislative Council
 
124. The financial functions of the Council of Ministers include the right of
(A) to certify whether a bill is a money bill or not.
(B) to prepare and introduce the budget in the Parliament.
(C) to control expenditure out of the Contingency Fund of India.
(D) to appoint Finance Commission from time to time.
 
125. The Council of Ministers can be removed from office –
(A) by the President at his discretion.
(B) by the Rajya Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
(C) by the Lok Sabha if it passes a vote of no confidence to this effect.
(D) by the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha jointly by passing a vote of no confidence against it.
 
 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2015

5.  _____ is the Chief Law Officer of India
(A) Advocate General        
(B) Attorney General       
(C) Solicitor General       
(D) Law Minister
 
6.   Which is not correct statement regarding financial emergency ?
(A) President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety
(B) The States may be asked to reserve the Money Bills for the consideration of the President
(C) President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues
(D) President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges
 
17.  How many subjects are found in the concurrent list in the Indian Constitution ?
(A) 52       
(B) 62       
(C) 42       
(D) 72
 
18.  The residuary powers of legislation are vested in Parliament in India. The residuary provisions are found in which Article ?
(A) Art 245         
(B) Art 248        
(C) Art 250      
(D) Art 251
 
19.  Parliament of India has exclusive power to legislate on items in the Union list. How many subjects are in the Union list at present ?
(A) 100        
(B) 80        
(C) 87      
(D) 99
 
21.  Provisions regarding the Panchayats are incorporated in which articles ?
(A) Art 243 to Art 243 L       
(B) Art 243 to Art 243 M
(C) Art 243 to Art 244        
(D) Art 243 to Art 243 O
 
22.  The Panchayats are enshrined in which Part of the Constitution of India ?
(A) Part IX       
(B) Part IX A        
(C) Part X      
(D) Part XI A
 
40.  Which of the following states does not have Panchayati Raj Institutions ?
(A) Assam         
(B) Nagaland         
(C) Kerala         
(D) Tripura
 
48.  The emoluments, allowances, privileges of a Governor can be altered by :
(A) A constitutional amendment passed by a simple majority in Parliament
(B) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament
(C) A constitutional amendment passed by a special majority in Parliament and ratified by one half of the State Legislatures
(D) By an ordinary legislative process that does not require constitutional Amendment
 
49.  Which of the following subjects is included in the Union list ?
(A) Agriculture       
(B) Extradition       
(C) Public health, Sanitation, Hospitals      
(D) Libraries, Museums
50.  Consolidated Fund of India is provided in
(A) Art 234       
(B) Art 265        
(C) Art 239        
(D) Art 266
 
51.  The provisions regarding the Union and the State relations are contained in which part of the Constitution of India ?
(A) IX       
(B) X        
(C) XII        
(D) XI
 
52.  Which Schedule of the Constitution of India distributes power between the Union and the States ?
(A) First Schedule       
(B) Second Schedule       
(C) Sixth Schedule        
(D) Seventh Schedule
 
53.  Which article of the Constitution of India provides personal immunity to the head of the State for his official act from legal action including proceedings for contempt of Court ?
(A) Article 361       
(B) Article 362        
(C) Article 368      
(D) Article 369
 
54.  Which schedule deals with the Anti-Defection Act ?
(A) Fifth      
(B) Eighth        
(C) Seventh         
(D) Tenth
 
55.  With reference to defections consider the following statements
1. An independent member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party after 6 months from the date on which he takes his seat.
2. A nominated member of Lok Sabha becomes disqualified if he joins any party any time
       Which statement is/are true ?
(A) 1 only       
(B) 2 only       
(C) Both 1 & 2        
(D) Neither 1 nor 2
 
57.  Defection to another party after election was made illegal by the :
(A) 52nd Amendment Act       
(B) 53rd Amendment Act
(C) 54th amendment Act      
(D) 55th Amendment Act
 
58.  Choose the amendment to the Constitution of India that increased the elective strength of the Lok Sabha from 525 to 545
(A) 31st Amendment Act       
(B) 30th Amendment Act
(C) 25th Amendment Act       
(D) 21st Amendment Act
 
59.  The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister in India is
(A) 25 years        
(B) 30 years        
(C) 35 years       
(D) 40 years
 
60.  Which one of the following Bills must be passed by each House of the Indian Parliament separately by special majority ?
(A) Ordinary Bill      
(B) Money Bill       
(C) Finance Bill        
(D) Constitution Amendment Bill
71.  The total number of members nominated by the President to the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is
(A) 16       
(B) 18        
(C) 14      
(D) 12
 
72.  Which of the following is correct ?
(A) Only a member of the Rajya Sabha can contest for the office of the Vice-President of India
(B) All the members of the Rajya Sabha are not elected by State Legislative Assemblies
(C) The Constitution of India explicitly prohibits the appointment of a nominated member of the Rajya Sabha to the post of a Vice-President
(D) While a candidate to the Lok Sabha can contest from any State in India, a candidate to the Rajya Sabha should ordinarily be a resident of the State from where he is contesting
 
73.  The Vice-President of India may be removed from his/her office by the :
(A) Legislative Assemblies of State      
(B) President        
(C) Prime Minister        
(D) Parliament
 
74.  Which of the following Articles states that the Vice-President is an ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States ?
(A) Art 60       
(B) Art 61       
(C) Art 62        
(D) Art 64
 
75.  Which Amendment to the Indian Constitution added that the President can sent the advice of the Council of Ministers back for reconsideration once and if the Council of Ministers sends the same advice again to the President then the president must accept it ?
(A) 44th Amendment        
(B) 43rd Amendment        
(C) 42nd Amendment       
(D) 41st Amendment
 
76.  The manner of the election of the President in India is found in :
(A) Art 64         
(B) Art 55       
(C) Art 56       
(D) Art 57
 
77.  Which Article of the Indian Constitution contains the power of the president to grant pardons ?
(A) Article 72       
(B) Article 73         
(C) Article 74      
(D) Article 75
 
78.  Which one of the following Articles empowers the president to appoint the Prime Minister of India ?
(A) Article 74        
(B) Article 75        
(C) Article 76      
(D) Article 77
 
81.  Under which constitutional Article newspapers do not have the right to publish reports of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of parliament or Legislative Assembly and Legislative Councils in India ?
(A) Art 361       
(B) Art 361 A       
(C) Art 361 B       
(D) Art 361 C
 
91.  The minimum age for holding office in the Rajya Sabha is
(A) 18 years       
(B) 21 years       
(C) 25 years       
(D) 30 years
92.  What is the maximum strength (number of members) of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution of India ?
(A) 552       
(B) 540       
(C) 555      
(D) 550
 
93.  Choose the incorrect statement from the following :
(A) The Prime Minister presides over the meeting of Council of Ministers
(B) Resignation of the Prime Minister means the resignation of the entire Council of Ministers
(C) The Prime Minister allocates portfolios to the Ministers
(D) The Prime Minister directly appoints everyone in the Council of Ministers
 
94.  What is the maximum permissible size of the Council of Ministers at the Centre ?
(A) Maximum 50      
(B) No upper limit
(C) Cannot exceed 15% of the total members of Lok Sabha
(D) Cannot exceed 10% of the total members of Lok Sabha
 
95.  The maximum number of Anglo Indian who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are
(A) 3       
(B) 2       
(C) 5      
(D) 4
 
96.  Which of the statements below is/are correct ?
1. The Parliament of India consists of three parts, viz the President, the House of People and the Council of States
2. The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament
3. The Parliament is the Legislative organ of Union Government
(A) 1 only         
(B) 1 & 2 only      
(C) 1 & 3 only      
(D) All of the above
 
97.  Choose the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the Joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(A) Article 101       
(B) Article 108       
(C) Article 133      
(D) Article 102
 
98.  In the absence of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who presides over the deliberations of the Lok Sabha ?
(A) Oldest member of the House        
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Leader of the opposition
(D) One of the members of the House out of a panel of six persons nominated by the speaker
 
99.  In the case of disagreement on a Bill between the two Houses of Parliament
(A) The Prime Minister intervenes       
(B) The President intervenes
(C) A special Parliamentary Committee is formed to resolve the impasse
(D) A joint sitting of the Houses of Parliament is convened
 
100.  After the declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation of the emergency without approval by the Parliament ?
(A) One month        
(B) Two months      
(C) Three months       
(D) Four months
 
 

WBCS Main Question Paper – 2014

14.  The Vice President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of the members of :
(A) Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) State Legislatures and Lok Sabha
(D) None of the above
 
15.  The President of India can nominate ____ members to the Lok Sabha and ___ members to the Rajya Sabha
(A) 12,  2         
(B) 2,  12       
(C) 2,  10       
(D) 10,  2
 
16.  Who among the following did not serve as the Vice President of India before becoming the President of India ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(C) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Shankar Dayal Sharma
 
17 .  Out of the following who served as the first Vice President of India ?
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad       
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan      
(C) Dr. Zakir Hussain      
(D) V. V, Giri
 
18.  In which article of the Constitution of India has the joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha been provided ?
(A) Article 104        
(B) Article 108        
(C) Article 133       
(D) Article 143
   
21.  Which among the following is the middle unit of Three Tier Panchayati Raj System ?
(A) Gram Panchayat        
(B) Panchayat Samiti       
(C) Zila Parishad       
(D) Gram Sabha
 
22.  Sarkaria Commission was set up in the year :
(A) 1982         
(B) 1983        
(C) 1984        
(D) 1985
  
24.  Unlike that of the Lok Sabha what is the period of the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) 6 years        
(B) 5 years         
(C) It is a Permanent House        
(D) 2 years
 
26.  The Lok Sabha was first constituted in :
(A) 1947        
(B) 1952       
(C) 1950       
(D) 1951
 
27.  Under which Article of the Indian Constitution can the Parliament legislate on any subject in the state list ?
(A) Article 229         
(B) Article 249        
(C) Article 239       
(D) Article 259
29.  The Anti-Defection Law was enacted in :
(A) 1985       
(B) 1980       
(C) 1983        
(D) 1982
 
31.  Which one among the following is not stipulated in the Constitution of India ?
(A) Union Public Service Commission
(B) Election Commission of India
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) The Planning Commission
 
32.  Nagarpalika bill was first introduced in the Parliament during the Primeministership of 
(A) Rajiv Gandhi       
(B) Narashimha Rao        
(C) V. P. Singh      
(D) Indira Gandhi
 
34.  Anti-Defection law was placed in :
(A) The Preamble
(B) The Fundamental Rights chapter in the Constitution
(C) 6th schedule of the Constitution
(D) 10th schedule of the Constitution
 
36.  Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution ?
(A) 370       
(B) 368        
(C) 390       
(D) 376
 
37.  The impeachment of the President of India can be initiated in :
(A) either House of the Parliament
(B) a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament
(C) the Lok Sabha alone
(D) the Rajya Sabha alone
 
41.  When a Bill is reserved by the Governor for the consideration of the President, within what time he must return the Bill ?
(A) Three months      
(B) Six months        
(C) One year       
(D) There is no time limit
 
43.  Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India ?
(A) Insurance       
(B) Fisheries        
(C) Agriculture       
(D) Gambling
 
45.  Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India makes a specific mention of village Panchayats :
(A) Article 19       
(B) Article 21        
(C) Article 40       
(D) Article 246
 
46.  Which among the following is the exclusive jurisdiction of the State Governments ?
(A) Corporation Tax     
(B) Customs Duty Tax        
(C) Sales Tax      
(D) Income Tax
 
49.  How many types of emergencies have been envisaged by the Constitution ?
(A) 2       
(B) 3       
(C) 4      
(D) 1
 
50.  The members of the Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to :
(A) The President of India
(B) The House of the People
(C) The Prime Minister
(D) The Rajya Sabha
 

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